UGC NET Dec 2013 Paper-I

UGC NET  December-2013  Paper I 

1. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
Answer: (A) Information society

2. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
Answer: (B) Military purposes

3. Internal communication within institutions done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
Answer: (A) LAN

4. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
Answer: (C) Participatory experience

5. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu

6. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i) Limits to Growth
ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

 [Note: This is wrong question and UGC given full Marks to all the Candidates]

7. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
Answer: (A) Africa
           
8. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this?
(A) Realist
(B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist
(D) Deep ecology
 Answer: (B) Essentialist

9. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Answer: (A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.

10. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following:
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
Answer: (D) Watershed Development Approach

11. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
Answer: (B) Transport sector

12. ln a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG
(D) CNG
Answer: (B) Hydrogen

13. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Answer: (A) Distance Education Council (DEC)

14. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B) 1 and 2

15. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
Answer: (C) Original Jurisdiction

16. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

17. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the president of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum  of Rs 25,000
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

18. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Answer: (A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)

19. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP
(B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) EJKNFTGP

20. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7/- whereas that of mango is Rs 5/-
If the person has Rs. 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (D) 4


21. A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife," The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother's sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
Answer: (D) Sister of Father-in-law

22. In this series 6, 4, 1,2,2,8, 7,4,2,1,5,3,8,6,2,2,7,1,4,1,3,5,8,6.
How many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (C) 6

23. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65; The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A) 85
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 65
Answer: (A) 85

24. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
Answer: (C) 12 years

25. Which of the following is a social network?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: (D) Twitter

26. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics
Answer: (D) Statistics

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 27 to 32

            Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property. (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering Institutes, as has been done in Europe.

                          Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based. It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

27. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO's assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
Answer: (A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property

28. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration
Answer: (B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.

29. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation
(D) Archaeological Survey of India's meaningful assistance.
Answer: (C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation

30. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent
(B) 11 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 13 percent
Answer: (B) 11 percent

31. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose the correct statement
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B) (i), (ii), (iv)

32. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
Answer: (D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.

33. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class
Answer: (C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance

34. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher's satisfaction.
(B) Teacher's honesty and commitment
(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand
(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.
Answer: (C) Teacher's making students learn and understand

35. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
Answer: (B) Modification of behaviour

36. Arrange the following teaching process in order:
(i) Relate the Present knowledge with Previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
Answer: (D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

37. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
Answer: (C) Central Institute for Education Technology

38. Teacher's role at higher education
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
Answer: (B) promote self learning in students.

39. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social scientists
(B) American philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian political Analysts
Answer: (A) German Social scientists

40. The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-vaiation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.
Answer: (A) Co-vaiation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation

41. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation

(B) Theorisation

(C) Conceptualisation

(D) Randomisation

Answer: (D) Randomisation

42. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature

(B) To summarize what is already known

(C) To get an academic degree

(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

Answer: (D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

43. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size

(B) increase in sample size

(C) process of randomization

(D) process of analysis

Answer: (B) increase in sample size

44. The Principles of fundamental research are used in 

(A) action research

(B) applied research

(C) philosophical research

(D) historical  research

Answer: (B) applied research

45. Users  who use media for their own  ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience

(B) Active audience

(C) Positive audience

(D) Negative audience

Answer: (B) Active audience

46. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration

(B) Institutionalisation

(C) Unsignified narration

(D) Discourse

Answer: (D) Discourse

47. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions

(B) Perceptions

(C) Consumptions

(D) Creations

Answer: (B) Perceptions

48. In communication myths have power but are

(A) uncultural

(B) insignificant

(C) imprecise

(D) unprefered

Answer: (C) imprecise

           

49. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar

(B) API

(C) Hindustan Samachar

(D) Samachar Bharati

Answer: (C) Hindustan Samachar

50. Organisational  communication can be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication

(B) inter personal communication

(C) group communication

(D) mass comrnunication

Answer: (C) group communication

51. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship  between them is called

(A) Contradictory

(B) Contrary

(C) Sub-contrary

(D) Sub-alteration

Answer: (A) Contradictory

52. Ananaya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?

(A) Archana

(B) Bulbul

(C) Ananya

(D) Krishna

Answer: (C) Ananya

53. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true

(B) Always false

(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false

(D) Neither true nor false

Answer: (D) Neither true nor false

54. When the conclusion of an argument  follows  from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument

(B) Inductive argument

(C) Deductive argument

(D) Analogical argument

Answer: (C) Deductive argument

55. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is

What type of argument is contained in the above passage?

(A) Deductive

(B) Astrological

(C) Analogical

(D) Mathematical

Answer: (C) Analogical

56. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.

Premises:

(i) All saints are religious. (major)

(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)

Codes

(A) All saints are honest

(B) Some saints are honest.

(C) Some honest persons are religious.

 (C) All religious persons are honest

Answer: (C) Some honest persons are religious.

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the’ world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 57 to 60 based on this table.

Region	Number of Foreign Tourist Arrival
	2007	2008	2009
Western Europe	1686083	1799525	1610086
North America	1007276	1027297	1024469
South Asia	982428	1051846	982633
South East Asia	303475	332925	348495
East Asia	352037	355230	318292
West Asia	171661	215542	201110
Total FTAs in India	5081504	5282603	5108579

57. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) South East Asia

Answer: (B) North America

58. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) West Asia

Answer: (D) West Asia

59. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) South East Asia

(C) East Asia

(D) West Asia            

Answer: (A) Western Europe

60. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) East Asia

Answer: (C) South Asia